14 CFR Parts 61 and 91 rules for pilots and aircraft.
108 lessons in this chapter
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14 CFR 91.203 requires that the airworthiness certificate and the registration certificate be aboard the aircraft. 14 CFR 91.9 requires that the operating limitations (often found in the Pilot's Operating Handbook, placards, markings, or an approved Aircraft Flight Manual) be available, and current weight and balance data must be available to compute loading. Option B lists exactly these required documents, none of which include items that are not required to be carried.
14 CFR 91.17(a)(1) states that no person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage. The regulation also prohibits acting as a crewmember while having a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or greater, or while under the influence of alcohol. Therefore the minimum required waiting period after consuming alcohol is 8 hours, making B the correct choice.
Under 14 CFR 91.117(a), no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots. The regulation is designed to reduce closure rates and collision risk in the higher-traffic airspace below 10,000 feet, where more aircraft operate. Therefore, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted below 10,000 feet MSL is 250 knots, making option B correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.151(a)(1), no person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes during the day. (At night the requirement increases to 45 minutes.) Therefore the day VFR reserve is 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
Under 14 CFR 91.113(d), when aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (other than head-on), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. So if another aircraft is approaching from your right, it has priority and you must yield by altering course. This mirrors the nautical and roadway concept of yielding to traffic on the right and provides a clear, predictable rule that prevents collisions.
Under 14 CFR 61.23(d), a third-class medical certificate issued to a person who has not reached their 40th birthday on the date of the medical examination is valid for 60 calendar months from the end of the month of the examination. Because the pilot in this question is under age 40, the 60-calendar-month duration applies, which equals five years of validity for exercising private pilot privileges.
Under 14 CFR 61.56(c), no person may act as pilot in command unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, they have completed a flight review given by an authorized instructor and received a logbook endorsement certifying satisfactory completion. Therefore a flight review is required at least every 24 calendar months, making option B correct.
Under 14 CFR 61.57(a), to act as pilot in command carrying passengers, a pilot must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required). Therefore, the 90-day window is the correct recency period for daytime passenger-carrying currency.
Under 49 CFR 830.2, an 'aircraft accident' is defined as an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft, taking place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage. Per 49 CFR 830.5, the operator must immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB office when an accident occurs. Option B exactly matches this two-part definition (death/serious injury OR substantial damage), so it is correct.
Under 14 CFR 61.113(i) and Part 68, a pilot using BasicMed may act as PIC only in a 'covered aircraft' operated within specific limits: flown below 18,000 feet MSL and at an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or less. Among the choices, only option B reflects both the 18,000-foot ceiling and the 250-knot speed limit, which are the defining BasicMed operating restrictions. (Note: the covered aircraft may carry up to 5 passengers plus the pilot for a maximum of 6 occupants and have a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 6,000 pounds.)
Under 14 CFR 91.159, when operating VFR more than 3,000 feet above the surface in level cruising flight, the appropriate altitude is determined by the magnetic COURSE. For courses of 0 degrees through 179 degrees, you fly odd thousands plus 500 feet. For courses of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, you fly even thousands plus 500 feet. A magnetic course of 185 degrees falls in the 180 to 359 degree range, so the pilot must cruise at an even thousand plus 500 feet, such as 4,500 feet, 6,500 feet, and so on.
Under 14 CFR 91.207(d), each ELT must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for proper installation, battery corrosion, controls, and signal radiation. Separately, 14 CFR 91.207(c) requires the battery to be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of the battery's useful life has expired. Option B correctly combines the 12 calendar month inspection cycle with the 50 percent useful life battery replacement standard.
Under 14 CFR 91.155, the basic VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace at night, when below 10,000 feet MSL, require a flight visibility of at least 3 statute miles. The same table also requires cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. Note that the visibility requirement of 3 statute miles in Class E below 10,000 feet MSL applies both day and night; the night distinction primarily affects Class G airspace, not Class E.
14 CFR 91.205(c)(4) lists landing lights among the equipment required for night flight only 'if the aircraft is operated for hire.' For a privately operated aircraft not flown for hire, a landing light is therefore not legally required. While not mandatory, a landing light greatly improves the aircraft's conspicuity and aids in detecting obstacles and other traffic, so it is strongly recommended for safety and collision avoidance.
Under 14 CFR 91.211(a)(1), at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen for that portion of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration. So the crew may operate up to 30 minutes without oxygen, but any time beyond 30 minutes in that band requires supplemental oxygen.
Under 14 CFR 91.119(b), when operating over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over an open-air assembly of persons, the aircraft must maintain an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. This rule ensures that in the event of an engine failure, the pilot has adequate altitude and gliding distance to avoid hazard to persons or property on the surface. Option B states both the correct altitude (1,000 feet) and the correct horizontal radius (2,000 feet), matching the regulation exactly.
Under 14 CFR 61.23(d), a third-class medical certificate's validity depends on age at the time of the medical examination. If the pilot was under age 40 on the date of the exam, the certificate is valid for 60 calendar months from the end of the month it was issued. Therefore a pilot under 40 exercising private pilot privileges may use that medical for 60 calendar months.
14 CFR 91.303 states that no person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface (AGL). The regulation also lists the prohibited locations: over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; over an open-air assembly of persons; within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport; within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; and when flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. The altitude floor that completes the question is therefore 1,500 feet AGL.
14 CFR 91.107 requires the pilot in command to ensure each occupant is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten their safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. Beyond that, standard FAA preflight passenger briefings (often remembered as SAFETY) include smoking rules, the use of oxygen equipment when applicable, and the location and operation of emergency exits, along with seat belts. Option B captures these core safety briefing items, which are the items directly tied to occupant safety and regulatory requirements before flight.
14 CFR 91.215(b)(2) requires a transponder with Mode C (altitude reporting) capability in all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface. So the correct threshold is 10,000 feet MSL, with the exception that you do not need it when within 2,500 feet of terrain even though you may be above 10,000 feet MSL (such as over high terrain).
Under 14 CFR 91.409(a), an aircraft must have an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months to be operated. Per 14 CFR 65.95(a) and 65.91, only a person holding an Inspection Authorization (IA), or an appropriately rated repair station or the manufacturer, may perform and approve an annual inspection for return to service. A regular A&P mechanic can perform a 100-hour inspection but cannot sign off an annual without an IA, which is why option B is correct.
14 CFR 91.111 states that no person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. It further prohibits formation flight while carrying passengers for hire. Therefore formation flight is permitted when the pilots have arranged it in advance among themselves, provided they are not carrying passengers for hire. No special FAA authorization or ATC approval is required for the formation itself; the key requirements are prior arrangement between the pilots and the prohibition against passengers for hire.
Under 14 CFR 91.409(b), no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft the operator provides, unless that aircraft has had a 100-hour inspection within the preceding 100 hours of time in service. This requirement is tied specifically to commercial-type operations involving compensation, not to all aircraft. A standard privately operated aircraft only needs an annual inspection. Therefore the 100-hour inspection applies to aircraft used for hire, such as air taxi operations or flight instruction for hire.
Under 14 CFR 61.87, an authorized instructor may not authorize a student pilot to conduct a solo flight unless that instructor has made an endorsement in the student's logbook. Per 14 CFR 61.87(n), this endorsement is valid for a period of 90 calendar days from the date it is given. After 90 days, the student must receive a new endorsement to continue solo operations.
Under 14 CFR 61.109(a), an applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane single-engine land rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time. This total must include at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 10 hours of solo flight time. Within those hours are further specific requirements, such as 3 hours of cross-country, 3 hours of night, and 3 hours of instrument training, but the foundational minimums are 40 total, 20 dual, and 10 solo, which exactly matches option B.
Under 14 CFR 61.109(a)(5)(ii), an applicant for a private pilot airplane single-engine certificate must complete one solo cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations. Option B is the only choice that matches the 150 nautical mile minimum total distance requirement.
Under 14 CFR 61.23(d), a third-class medical certificate's validity depends on the pilot's age at the date of the examination. If the pilot is age 40 or older on the date of the exam, the certificate is valid through the last day of the 24th month after the month of the exam. (For pilots under 40, it is valid for 60 calendar months.) Since the question specifies a pilot age 40 or older, the correct answer is 24 calendar months.
Under 14 CFR 61.51(a), a pilot must document and log only the training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review, or to meet the recent flight experience (currency) requirements of Part 61. All other flight time may be logged at the pilot's discretion but is not required. Therefore, the only situation in which logging is mandatory is when the time is needed to satisfy one of those specific requirements, which makes option B correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.307(c), no pilot may execute intentional maneuvers exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees while carrying any person (other than crewmembers) without approved parachutes. However, 91.307(d) exempts these maneuvers when they are required by regulation for a certificate or rating and are given by a certificated flight instructor (or ATP). So when a CFI gives required dual instruction (such as spins for a flight instructor applicant), parachutes are not required even though the aircraft exceeds those attitudes.
Under 14 CFR 91.113(f), the aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right to pass well clear of the other aircraft. Therefore the overtaking aircraft both gives way to the aircraft being overtaken and passes to the right.
Under 14 CFR 91.113(g), aircraft while on final approach to land or while landing have the right of way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface. When two or more aircraft are approaching to land, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way. However, the rule includes an important safety limitation: a pilot may not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach or to overtake and pass an aircraft. Option B states both the basic rule and this critical limitation, making it the complete and correct answer.
ARROW stands for Airworthiness certificate, Registration certificate, Radio station license, Operating limitations (found in the POH and placards), and Weight and balance data. 14 CFR 91.203 requires a current airworthiness certificate and a registration certificate aboard. 91.9 requires the operating limitations, which include the approved flight manual or POH information, markings, and placards. The radio station license is required by FCC rules for aircraft operated internationally. Option A correctly lists all five of these required items.
Under 14 CFR 91.411, no person may operate an airplane in controlled airspace under IFR unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the static pressure system, each altimeter instrument, and the automatic pressure altitude reporting system have been tested and inspected and found to comply with the standards in Appendix E of Part 43. Therefore the correct interval is every 24 calendar months. The work must be performed by an appropriately certificated person or facility as specified in the regulation.
14 CFR 91.413 states that no person may use a transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, it has been tested and inspected and found to comply with the requirements of Appendix F of Part 43. This is independent of flight hours and applies on a calendar basis. Therefore the correct interval is 24 calendar months.
Under 14 CFR 91.107(a)(3), the pilot in command must ensure that each person on board is notified to fasten their safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness before taxi, takeoff, and landing. Each person must occupy a seat with the safety belt (and shoulder harness, if installed) fastened during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. The shoulder harness specifically is required during takeoff and landing when installed. Additionally, 91.107(a)(1) requires the pilot to brief each occupant on how to fasten and unfasten the belt and, if installed, the shoulder harness. Option B captures the briefing/notification duty plus the takeoff and landing harness requirement, making it the most complete and correct choice.
Under 14 CFR 91.15, no pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, the regulation explicitly permits dropping objects if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. There is no altitude or weight requirement, and no per-drop waiver is mandated. The standard is simply that reasonable precautions are taken, making option B the correct answer.
Under 14 CFR 91.119(b), when operating over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an aircraft must maintain an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. This protects people and property on the ground and ensures adequate clearance for an emergency landing without undue hazard. Option B matches this rule exactly.
14 CFR 91.119(c) sets the minimum altitude over areas other than congested areas (open country) at 500 feet above the surface. Over open water or sparsely populated areas, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Additionally, 91.119(a) requires that at all times the aircraft be flown at an altitude that allows an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface if a power unit fails. Both the 500-foot rule and the emergency-landing principle point to answer B.
Under 14 CFR 91.117(a), unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 mph). This speed restriction exists to reduce closure rates and give pilots more time to see and avoid traffic in the busier, lower-altitude airspace common below 10,000 feet MSL.
14 CFR 61.51(b) lists exactly what must be recorded for each flight: (1) the date, the total flight time, the location where the aircraft departed and arrived, and the type and identification of the aircraft; (2) the type of pilot experience or training, such as solo, pilot-in-command, dual received, or flight instruction; and (3) the conditions of flight, including day or night and actual or simulated instrument. Option B captures all of these required elements, making it the only complete and correct answer.
14 CFR 91.17(a)(1) states that no person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage. This is the well-known 'bottle to throttle' rule. The regulation also separately prohibits flying while under the influence of alcohol, with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater, or while using any drug that affects the person's faculties. Even after 8 hours, a pilot may not fly if still impaired or at or above the 0.04 BAC limit.
14 CFR 91.17(a) sets several independent prohibitions. Beyond the 8-hour 'bottle to throttle' rule, the regulation specifically prohibits acting as a crewmember while having a blood or breath alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or greater. Even if more than 8 hours have passed since the last drink, a crewmember whose BAC measures 0.04 percent or higher is still prohibited from acting as a crewmember. Therefore 0.04 percent is the correct threshold.
Under 14 CFR 61.57(b), to carry passengers at night a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days. The regulation specifically defines the qualifying period for these landings as the time from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. This is a stricter window than the general definition of night, so option B matches the exact regulatory language for night currency.
Under 14 CFR 21.181, a standard airworthiness certificate remains effective indefinitely as long as the aircraft meets its approved type design, is in a condition for safe operation, and the required maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and inspections are performed in accordance with 14 CFR Parts 43 and 91. Unlike registration certificates, the airworthiness certificate has no fixed expiration date; it stays valid for the life of the aircraft so long as airworthiness is maintained and ownership remains compliant.
14 CFR 91.205(b) lists the instruments and equipment required for VFR day flight. The first 'T' in the TOMATO FLAMES mnemonic stands for Tachometer for each engine, which directly appears in the regulation. A tachometer lets the pilot monitor engine RPM to operate within manufacturer limits, so it is mandatory equipment for every powered engine on board for VFR day operations.
14 CFR 91.205(c) lists the additional equipment required for VFR night flight beyond the day VFR equipment in 91.205(b). These include approved position (navigation) lights, an approved aviation red or white anti-collision light system, one landing light if the aircraft is operated for hire, an adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical equipment, and one spare set of fuses (or three spare fuses of each kind required) that are accessible to the pilot in flight. Option B accurately captures these requirements, making it the correct answer.
Under 14 CFR 91.207(c), the ELT battery must be replaced (or recharged if rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, OR when 50 percent of the battery's useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of its useful life of charge) has expired. Option B states exactly this second condition, making it the correct answer.
Under 14 CFR 91.211(a)(2), at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL the minimum required flight crew must use supplemental oxygen during the entire time at those altitudes. The regulation does not require passengers to use oxygen above 14,000 feet; passengers must only be provided supplemental oxygen above 15,000 feet MSL per 91.211(a)(3). Therefore option B correctly states that each required flight crew member must use oxygen, while it must merely be available—not mandatory—for passengers at this altitude range.
14 CFR 91.211(a) sets three altitude thresholds. Above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, the required minimum flight crew must use oxygen for any portion of flight at those altitudes lasting more than 30 minutes. Above 14,000 feet MSL, the required minimum flight crew must use oxygen the entire time. Above 15,000 feet MSL, each occupant of the aircraft must be PROVIDED with supplemental oxygen. The word 'provided' means it must be available to every person on board, not just the crew. Therefore the rule covers both pilots and all passengers, making option B correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.211(a)(1), when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration. Brief excursions of 30 minutes or less do not trigger the requirement, but anything beyond 30 minutes does.
Under 14 CFR 91.159, when operating under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet AGL, the altitude is determined by magnetic course. For a magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees (easterly), you fly odd thousands plus 500 feet. For a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees (westerly), you fly even thousands plus 500 feet. A course of 180 to 359 degrees is the westerly half of the compass, so the correct altitudes are 4,500; 6,500; 8,500 and so on. That makes option B correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.159, when operating under VFR more than 3,000 feet above the surface, the cruising altitude is based on magnetic course. On a magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees (generally eastbound), you fly any odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet, such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500. This matches option B exactly.
14 CFR 91.13(a) states that no person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another. It is intentionally broad and acts as a catch-all safety rule. The FAA frequently applies it to dangerous operations either by itself or in conjunction with a more specific violation, covering hazardous conduct that no narrower regulation specifically addresses.
14 CFR 61.59(b) explicitly states that committing any of the prohibited acts under this section, such as making a fraudulent or intentionally false entry on an application, logbook, report, or record, is a basis for suspending or revoking ANY airman certificate, rating, or authorization held by that person. The penalty is intentionally severe and reaches all certificates, not just the one connected to the falsification, because honesty and integrity are foundational to aviation safety.
Under 14 CFR 61.15(e), each person holding a pilot certificate must provide a written report of any motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs to the FAA, Security and Investigations Division, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. A 'motor vehicle action' includes a conviction, or the cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a driver's license for a cause related to operating a motor vehicle while intoxicated, impaired, or under the influence of alcohol or drugs. Therefore option B, 60 days of the conviction or administrative action, correctly states both the time limit and the triggering events.
Under 14 CFR 61.113(a), a private pilot may act as pilot in command or as a required crewmember of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated, and may carry passengers, but generally may not act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire. The general rule is no compensation, with only narrow exceptions (such as sharing operating expenses, certain charitable flights, aircraft salesman, or business flights incidental to employment). Option B accurately states this: PIC privileges with passengers allowed but no compensation received for the flight.
Under 14 CFR 61.113(c), a private pilot acting as pilot in command may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, and these expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. The pilot must bear at least an equal share (for example, with one passenger the pilot pays at least 50 percent; with three passengers the pilot pays at least one-fourth). The flight must have a common purpose and the pilot cannot profit, because a private pilot generally may not act as PIC for compensation or hire.
Under 14 CFR 91.213(d), when an aircraft without an MEL has inoperative equipment, the pilot must first determine whether that item is required. Step one is checking if the equipment is part of the VFR-day type certificate requirements, listed as required on the equipment list or Kinds of Operations Equipment List, required by 91.205 for the flight, or required by an airworthiness directive. If it is NOT required, it can then be deactivated or removed and placarded 'INOPERATIVE,' and the flight may proceed. If it IS required, the aircraft is not airworthy until repaired. So the very first action is the determination of whether the item is required.
14 CFR 91.225 lists where ADS-B Out is mandatory. Beyond Class A, B, and C airspace, it is required in Class E airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states (excluding airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL), within a 30 NM radius of a Class B primary airport from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL (the Mode C veil), and in certain other areas. Option B accurately captures the two most-tested additions, so it is correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.109(c)(1), no person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight (a pilot under a view-limiting device) unless a safety pilot occupies the other control seat. That safety pilot must possess at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown. The safety pilot's job is to watch for traffic and hazards while the other pilot is 'under the hood,' so they must be qualified to act as a pilot in that specific aircraft. There is no requirement for an instrument rating or a commercial certificate to serve in this role.
14 CFR 91.3(a) states the PIC is directly responsible for and the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft. Section 91.3(b) further provides that in an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule of Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency. This makes option B the correct expression of the rule, because it directly restates the emergency authority granted to the PIC.
Under 14 CFR 91.123(b) and (c), when an emergency requires a pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance, the pilot in command must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible. This lets the controller adjust traffic flow and provide separation and assistance immediately. A separate written report is required only if requested by ATC, and it must be submitted within 48 hours, not as a routine action. Therefore the correct response is to notify ATC as soon as possible.
This question marks B (10 days) as the answer, but you should be aware that the controlling regulation, 14 CFR 91.123, actually specifies a different time frame: under 91.123(c) the pilot in command must notify ATC of an emergency deviation as soon as possible, and under 91.123(e) a pilot who is given priority in an emergency must submit a detailed report within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility IF requested. There is no 10-day requirement in 91.123 for an ATC-requested report. The 10-day figure corresponds instead to NTSB accident reporting (49 CFR 830.15), where the operator files a report within 10 days after an aircraft accident. Because the keyed answer (10 days) does not match the ATC-deviation rule in 91.123, treat this item as flawed and study the actual 48-hour rule for ATC reports.
Under FAA Advisory Circular 00-46, filing a NASA ASRS report within 10 days of an inadvertent and unintentional violation can result in a waiver of the disciplinary sanction (civil penalty or certificate suspension), provided the violation was inadvertent, not deliberate, did not involve a criminal offense or accident, and the pilot had no prior violation in the preceding 5 years. The FAA may still find a violation occurred, but it will waive the penalty. The report does not erase the violation itself, nor does it protect against criminal acts or intentional, unsafe conduct, so option B accurately captures the limited nature of this protection.
The FARs in Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations are rules adopted through the formal rulemaking process and carry the force of law, meaning pilots can be enforced against for violations. The AIM, by contrast, is published by the FAA as an instructional and informational manual. It provides the basic flight information, ATC procedures, and recommended practices, but it is not law. The AIM itself states it is not regulatory in nature, though it does explain regulatory requirements and good operating practices. Therefore the correct description is that the AIM is an advisory document offering guidance and recommended practices, not a binding regulation.
14 CFR 91.151(a)(1) states that no person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless, considering wind and forecast weather, there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes during the day. Therefore option B, 30 minutes at cruise power, is correct.
14 CFR 91.151(a)(2) requires that for VFR flight at night, an airplane must carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes. So after reaching the destination you must still have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruise power.
14 CFR 91.103(a) states that for any flight, the PIC must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. For a flight not in the vicinity of the departure airport, this specifically includes weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the PIC has been advised by ATC. Option B lists exactly these required items, matching the regulation.
IMSAFE is a personal-minimums mnemonic each pilot uses to evaluate fitness to fly. The letters stand for Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, and Emotion (some FAA materials also cite Eating). The final E—Emotion—prompts the pilot to ask whether anger, anxiety, grief, or personal distractions could impair judgment and decision-making, making B the correct completion of the acronym.
PAVE divides a flight's risk into four categories: Pilot (fitness, currency, IMSAFE), Aircraft (airworthiness, performance, equipment), enVironment (weather, terrain, airspace, lighting), and External pressures. The 'E' for External pressures addresses the human tendency to let outside influences—schedule deadlines, waiting passengers, get-there-itis, or the desire to complete a trip—override sound safety judgment. Recognizing external pressures lets a pilot set personal minimums and 'outs' before the flight so emotion does not drive a poor go/no-go decision.
Hypoxia is a deficiency of oxygen reaching the body's tissues. As oxygen partial pressure decreases with altitude, the first effects appear gradually: a false sense of well-being (euphoria), impaired judgment and decision-making, slowed reaction, reduced night and visual acuity, and eventually cyanosis (blue-tinged fingernails and lips). The greatest danger is that these symptoms are subtle and the pilot often feels normal or even good while mental and physical performance silently deteriorates, which is why hypoxia kills pilots who never recognize it is happening.
Hypoxia is a deficiency of oxygen reaching the body's tissues, so it is corrected by supplying supplemental oxygen and descending to a lower altitude. Hyperventilation is an excessive rate and depth of breathing that 'blows off' too much carbon dioxide, upsetting the blood's chemical balance. The fix is to restore carbon dioxide levels by consciously slowing the breathing rate, talking aloud, or breathing into a bag. Because the two conditions share symptoms like dizziness and tingling, the FAA recommends first assuming hypoxia at altitude and using oxygen; if symptoms persist, treat for hyperventilation by slowing the breathing rate.
A steady green light directed at an aircraft on the ground means the aircraft is cleared for takeoff. Per the AIM light signal table, color meanings differ for aircraft on the ground versus in flight. On the ground, steady green authorizes takeoff; a flashing green (not steady) would authorize taxi. This system is used when radio communication is lost or unavailable.
Per the AIM, a flashing green light directed at an aircraft on the ground means 'Cleared to taxi.' Light gun signals are used when radio communication is lost or unavailable. The flashing green signal authorizes ground movement (taxi) but does not authorize takeoff, which requires a steady green light.
A steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight tells the pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling. The tower uses this signal when the runway is occupied or it is not yet safe to clear the aircraft to land; it directs the pilot to keep circling and yield until a green light authorizes landing. This matches the standardized light gun signal chart in the AIM and 14 CFR 91.125.
Per the AIM and 14 CFR 91.125, an alternating red and green light gun signal has the same meaning whether an aircraft is on the ground or in flight: Exercise extreme caution. Step one, recognize that light gun signals are ATC's backup method to direct aircraft without radio. Step two, recall that some signals differ between ground and flight, but the alternating red and green signal is one of the few that means the same thing in both situations. Step three, match the signal to its meaning: alternating red and green always warns the pilot to be alert and exercise extreme caution.
NTSB 830.2 defines an aircraft accident as an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and the time all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage. Option B captures both qualifying conditions, serious injury or death and substantial damage, which is the correct legal definition.
Under 49 CFR 830.5, the operator must notify the nearest NTSB office immediately after an aircraft accident or certain listed incidents. 'Immediately' is not a fixed number of hours; per 49 CFR 830.6 the notification must be made by the most expeditious means available, such as telephone, radio, or in person. The 10-day window applies only to the written report (Form 6120) for accidents under 49 CFR 830.15, not to the initial notification.
Under 49 CFR 830.15(a), the operator of an aircraft must file a written report (NTSB Form 6120.1) within 10 days after an accident. For an overdue aircraft believed to have been involved in an accident, the report is also due within 10 days; for an incident, a report is filed only if specifically requested by the NTSB. The operator must first give immediate notification of an accident under 830.5, but the formal written report follows within the 10-day window.
Under 14 CFR 61.31(e), no person may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane (one with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller) unless that person has received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, and has received a one-time logbook endorsement certifying proficiency in operating a complex airplane. This is an instructor endorsement, not a type rating or higher certificate.
Under 14 CFR 61.31(f), to act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane (one with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), a person must have received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high performance airplane, and must have received a one-time logbook endorsement certifying proficiency. No additional certificate, rating, or minimum hour total is required.
Under 14 CFR 61.31(i), no person may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in their logbook from that instructor certifying proficiency. The required training must include normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings, wheel landings (unless the manufacturer recommends against them), and go-around procedures. This is an endorsement, not a category, class, or type rating, and there is no specified minimum number of hours.
Under 14 CFR 61.83, to be eligible for a student pilot certificate (which is required to solo), a person must be at least 16 years of age for operations in an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift. Since soloing requires a student pilot certificate and the student must meet the eligibility age, the minimum age to solo an airplane is 16 years.
Under 14 CFR 61.103, an applicant for a private pilot certificate must be at least 17 years of age (16 for a balloon or glider only). Because the question specifies an airplane, the correct minimum age is 17 years. This regulation establishes a baseline maturity and legal-responsibility threshold before a person may exercise the privileges of pilot-in-command as a private pilot of a powered airplane.
14 CFR 61.3(a) and (c) require that a person acting as pilot in command must have a valid pilot certificate and an appropriate medical certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that certificate. 'Readily accessible' means it can be presented for inspection by the FAA, NTSB, or law enforcement upon request. Storing certificates at home or on file at an airport does not satisfy this requirement.
Impulsivity is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something, anything, immediately. They do not stop to think about the best alternative and they do the first thing that comes to mind. The FAA-prescribed antidote that directly counters this rushing behavior is 'Not so fast. Think first.' This statement forces the pilot to pause, evaluate options, and choose the safest action rather than reacting reflexively.
The FAA identifies five hazardous attitudes, each with a corresponding antidote a pilot recites to counter the dangerous thought. The 'invulnerability' attitude is the false belief that accidents happen to others but not to oneself, which leads pilots to take unnecessary risks. The prescribed antidote is 'It could happen to me,' which directly reminds the pilot that they are just as susceptible to accidents and emergencies as anyone else, restoring a realistic sense of personal risk.
Personal minimums are a core aeronautical decision-making (ADM) and risk-management tool. The FARs set the legal floor that applies to everyone, but legal does not always mean safe for a given pilot on a given day. A wise pilot establishes more conservative limits for weather (such as higher ceilings, greater visibility, and lower crosswind components) and performance based on their own skill, recency, currency, and fatigue. These limits are personal, flexible, and intentionally more restrictive than what regulation allows, giving a safety buffer.
The DECIDE model stands for Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate. The final step, Evaluate, requires the pilot to assess the effect of the action taken to determine whether it resolved the problem or whether further decision-making is needed. This makes the process a continuous loop, ensuring the chosen course of action actually corrected the situation.
Under 14 CFR 47.40, an aircraft registration certificate expires at the end of a set period and must be renewed to remain valid. The standard renewal interval established by the FAA is three years from the date of registration. The owner must apply for renewal to keep the registration current, otherwise the certificate becomes invalid and the aircraft may not be legally operated. Therefore, three years is the correct renewal interval.
A sport pilot may act as pilot in command of a light sport aircraft (LSA) only. Per 14 CFR 61.315, the sport pilot may carry no more than one passenger, may not fly for compensation, and is limited to daytime flight under visual flight rules (VFR). Sport pilots are restricted from operating in Class A airspace and may not enter Class B, C, or D airspace without the required training and a logbook endorsement, leaving Class E and G airspace as their default operating environment. Additionally, under 14 CFR 61.23, a sport pilot exercising privileges in a light sport aircraft may use a valid U.S. driver's license in place of an FAA medical certificate, provided the most recent medical was not denied, suspended, or revoked. Option B captures all of these core limits accurately.
Hypoxia results from insufficient oxygen reaching the body's tissues. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases, reducing the partial pressure of oxygen available to the lungs. Below about 10,000 feet MSL, healthy individuals generally maintain adequate oxygen saturation during the day. However, night vision (which depends on oxygen-sensitive rod cells in the retina) can begin degrading as low as 5,000 feet, and by around 10,000 feet MSL subtle impairment of judgment, coordination, and performance becomes significant for most unacclimatized pilots. This is why the regulations in 14 CFR 91.211 require supplemental oxygen for the crew above 12,500 feet (after 30 minutes) and continuously above 14,000 feet.
Over-the-counter medications can have side effects (drowsiness, impaired judgment, slowed reaction time) that degrade pilot performance, and the underlying illness itself can also impair the pilot. The FAA guidance is to not fly until both the medication effects have completely cleared and the condition that prompted treatment has resolved. When in doubt, a pilot should consult an Aviation Medical Examiner. This reflects the regulatory prohibition in 14 CFR 61.53 against acting as PIC with a known medical deficiency, and the personal-minimums emphasis of the IMSAFE checklist.
The FAA identifies five hazardous attitudes, each with a specific antidote a pilot recites to counter it. The 'anti-authority' attitude is the tendency to resent rules and regulations, thinking 'Don't tell me what to do.' The FAA-prescribed antidote is 'Follow the rules. They are usually right.' This directly counters the resistance to authority by reminding the pilot that regulations exist for safety and are generally correct.
Resignation is the hazardous attitude where a pilot feels they have little control over outcomes and that whatever happens is due to luck or beyond their influence. The FAA-prescribed antidote that directly counters this feeling of helplessness is 'I am not helpless. I can make a difference.' This statement re-establishes the pilot's sense of agency and responsibility, reminding them that their actions and decisions do affect the safety of the flight.
The 'macho' hazardous attitude is characterized by a pilot trying to prove they are better than others, taking unnecessary risks to impress people ('I can do it - I'll show them'). The FAA-prescribed antidote that directly counters this risk-taking mindset is 'Taking chances is foolish.' This statement reframes risk-taking as poor judgment rather than a display of skill, which is exactly the corrective thought a macho pilot needs.
The FAA's runway safety program requires that pilots read back all runway hold-short instructions and all instructions to cross any runway. This is mandatory regardless of whether the controller specifically requests it. AIM 4-3-18 and AIM 4-3-20 emphasize that read backs of hold-short instructions are required to ensure both the pilot and controller share the same understanding of the clearance, closing the communication loop and reducing the risk of runway incursions.
14 CFR 91.159 requires VFR flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface, in level cruising flight, to maintain an altitude based on magnetic course. On a magnetic course of 0 through 179 degrees, you fly odd thousands plus 500 feet, such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500 feet MSL. On a magnetic course of 180 through 359 degrees, you fly even thousands plus 500 feet, such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500 feet MSL. Option B states this exactly, so it is correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.113(c), an aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic. After distress, 91.113(d) establishes the order of priority by category based on maneuverability and ability to give way: a balloon has the right of way over any other category; a glider has the right of way over an airship, powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft; and an airship has the right of way over a powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft. Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have right of way over all other engine-driven aircraft. The general principle is that less maneuverable aircraft are given priority because they have the least ability to maneuver out of the way.
Under 14 CFR 91.155, basic VFR weather minimums change at higher altitudes. In Class E airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL (and more than 1,200 feet AGL), the required flight visibility is 5 statute miles, and the aircraft must remain 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds. These larger clearances exist because aircraft can operate at higher speeds above 10,000 feet, so greater visibility and distance from clouds are needed to see and avoid traffic, especially IFR aircraft that may emerge from clouds.
Per 14 CFR 91.209(a)(1), no person may operate an aircraft from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen for 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon) unless it has lighted position lights. The phrase 'operate an aircraft' includes all ground and flight operations such as taxiing, takeoff, flight, and landing. Therefore position lights must be displayed from sunset to sunrise whenever the aircraft is operating, not just while in flight or in a particular airspace.
Under 14 CFR 91.409(a), no person may operate an aircraft unless it has had an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months. Per 14 CFR 65.95 and 43.7, only a mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization (IA), a certificated repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer may perform and approve an annual inspection for return to service. A standard A&P mechanic without IA may perform a 100-hour inspection but not an annual. Therefore option B is correct.
Under 91.225, aircraft operating in the listed airspace must be equipped with ADS-B Out that meets the performance requirements of 91.227. This requires a position source meeting the integrity and accuracy standards (a WAAS-capable GPS), transmitting on either 1090 MHz Extended Squitter or, below 18,000 feet MSL, the Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) on 978 MHz. The system must broadcast required data including position (latitude/longitude), pressure altitude, velocity, and aircraft identification (flight ID). This matches option B exactly.
Under 14 CFR 91.155, Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles. This is the same visibility requirement applied to most controlled airspace at lower altitudes. The cloud clearance requirement in this airspace is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. At or above 10,000 feet MSL, the visibility requirement increases to 5 statute miles, but the question specifies below 10,000 feet MSL, so 3 statute miles is correct.
Under 14 CFR 91.157, Special VFR is never a self-initiated operation; the pilot must request and receive an ATC clearance to operate SVFR within a controlled airspace surface area. The minimum weather requirements are 1 statute mile flight visibility and remaining clear of clouds. Additionally, 91.157(b)(4) specifies that to conduct SVFR between sunset and sunrise (or as established locally), the pilot must hold an instrument rating and the aircraft must be equipped for instrument flight. Option B captures all three of these conditions accurately, so it is correct.
Under 14 CFR 61.51(e)(1), a sport, recreational, private, commercial, or ATP pilot may log PIC time when they are the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which they are rated, when they are the sole occupant of the aircraft, or when acting as PIC of an aircraft requiring more than one pilot. Separately, 61.51(e)(1)(iii) and 91.109(c) allow a pilot acting as PIC during simulated instrument flight (under the hood) to log PIC time while a qualified safety pilot occupies the other control seat. Option A captures both legitimate scenarios: sole occupant, and acting PIC with a safety pilot aboard for simulated instrument operations.
14 CFR 91.307(c) requires each occupant to wear an approved parachute when intentionally exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or a nose-up or nose-down pitch of 30 degrees relative to the horizon, but only when carrying any person other than a crewmember. 91.307(d) then exempts flight tests for a certificate or rating, and spins and other maneuvers required by regulation when given by a certificated flight instructor. Therefore, when only the pilot (a required crewmember) is aboard, or when only flight crew are present such as during authorized training, the carrying-of-persons condition is not met and parachutes are not required.
Equipment installed on a certificated aircraft must meet FAA airworthiness standards. The FAA approves equipment through several pathways: a Technical Standard Order (TSO) authorization shows the article meets a minimum performance standard; a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) approves a major modification or added equipment; and equipment originally listed on the aircraft's Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) was approved as part of the original type design. Any of these establishes that the equipment is approved and airworthy for installation and use.